hampool/extra.txt

NCVEC amateur radio question pools

SUBELEMENT E1 - COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]


E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft

E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
A. The exact upper band edge
B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
~~

E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
A. The exact lower band edge
B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
~~

E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
~~

E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305] 
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
~~

E1A05 (C) [97.313]
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
~~

E1A06 (B) [97.15]
Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
A. At the lowest frequency of the channel
B. At the center frequency of the channel
C. At the highest frequency of the channel
D. On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the channel
~~

E1A07 (D) [97.303]
Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?
A. 12 meter band
B. 17 meter band
C. 30 meter band
D. 60 meter band
~~

E1A08 (B) [97.219]
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
~~

E1A09 (A) [97.219]
What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office
D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
~~

E1A10 (A) [97.11]
If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
~~

E1A11 (B) [97.5]
Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?
A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B. Any FCC-issued amateur license
C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
~~

E1A12 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
C. No, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band
D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
~~

E1A13 (B) [97.5]
Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
~~

E1A14 (D) [97.303]
What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
A. 60 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 1.5 kHz
D. 2.8 kHz
~~


E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations; national quiet zone

E1B01 (D) [97.3]
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
~~

E1B02 (D) [97.13]
Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
A. The location is near an area of political conflict
B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
C. The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
~~

E1B03 (A) [97.13]
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
~~

E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
~~

E1B05 (C) [97.3]
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
~~

E1B06 (A) [97.15]
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
~~

E1B07 (B) [97.307]
What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
~~

E1B08 (D) [97.121]
What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
A. The amateur station must cease operation
B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
~~

E1B09 (C) [97.407]
Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
~~

E1B10 (A) [97.407]
What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
~~

E1B11 (A) [97.307]
What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
A. At least 43 dB below
B. At least 53 dB below
C. At least 63 dB below
D. At least 73 dB below
~~


E1C Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications over automatically controlled stations

E1C01 (D) [97.3]
What is a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
~~

E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109]
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a directional control link
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
~~

E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109]
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
~~

E1C04 (A)
What is meant by IARP?
A. An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
C. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
D. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
~~

E1C05 (A) [97.221(c)(1),[97.115(c)]
When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
C. When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~

E1C06 (C) [97.109]
Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
C. A control operator must be present at the control point
D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
~~

E1C07 (C) [97.3]
What is meant by local control?
A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
~~

E1C08 (B) [97.213]
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
~~

E1C09 (D) [97.205]
Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
A. 18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
B. 24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
C. 10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
D. 29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
~~

E1C10 (B) [97.113]
What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
~~

E1C11 (A) [97.5]
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU reciprocal license
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1C12 (C) [97.117]
What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1C13 (C)
Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
B. The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
~~


E1D Amateur satellites: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements

E1D01 (A) [97.3]
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data
D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
~~

E1D02 (C) [97.3]
What is the amateur satellite service?
A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
~~

E1D03 (B) [97.3]
What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface
D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
~~

E1D04 (A) [97.3]
What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere
D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
~~

E1D05 (C) [97.207]
What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
A. All except Technician Class
B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
C. Any class with appropriate operator privileges
D. Only Amateur Extra Class
~~

E1D06 (A) [97.207]
Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1D07 (A) [97.207]
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
A. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
B. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
C. Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
D. All HF bands
~~

E1D08 (D) [97.207]
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
A. 6 meters and 2 meters
B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
D. 2 meters
~~

E1D09 (B) [97.207]
Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm only
B. 70 cm and 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm
~~

E1D10 (B) [97.211]
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1D11 (D) [97.209]
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
~~


E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements

E1E01 (D) [97.509]
What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
~~

E1E02 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?
A. In FCC Part 97
B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
~~

E1E03 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
~~

E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525]
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
~~

E1E05 (B) [97.503]
What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
A. Minimum passing score of 70%
B. Minimum passing score of 74%
C. Minimum passing score of 80%
D. Minimum passing score of 77%
~~

E1E06 (C) [97.509]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating the session
B. The FCC
C. Each administering VE
D. The VE session manager
~~

E1E07 (B) [97.509]
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session
~~

E1E08 (C) [97.509]
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
A. Employees of the VE
B. Friends of the VE
C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1E09 (A) [97.509]
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1E10 (C) [97.509]
What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
A. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
B. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
~~

E1E11 (B) [97.509]
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
D. All these choices are correct
~~

E1E12 (A) [97.509]
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
A. Return the application document to the examinee
B. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
D. Destroy the application form
~~

E1E13 (B) [97.509]
Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?
A. Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the
VE team
B. Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
C. The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
D. Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
~~

E1E14 (A) [97.527]
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
~~


E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; special temporary authority

E1F01 (B) [97.305]
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
~~

E1F02 (C) [97.107]
What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?
A. None, they must obtain a U.S. license
B. All privileges of the Extra Class license
C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
D. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
~~

E1F03 (A) [97.315]
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country’s government
~~

E1F04 (A) [97.3]
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
~~

E1F05 (D) [97.303]
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
A. 440 MHz - 450 MHz
B. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
C. 222 MHz - 223 MHz
D. 420 MHz - 430 MHz
~~

E1F06 (A) [1.931]
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use
D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
~~

E1F07 (D) [97.113]
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
~~

E1F08 (A) [97.113]
Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C. Communications that have a religious content
D. Communications in a language other than English
~~

E1F09 (D) [97.311]
Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E1F10 (C) [97.313]
What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
A. 1 W
B. 1.5 W
C. 10 W
D. 1.5 kW
~~

E1F11 (D) [97.317]
Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
~~

E1F12 (B) [97.201]
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
A. Any licensed amateur operator
B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators
~~


SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]


E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations; experimental telemetry applications

E2A01 (C)
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
~~

E2A02 (A)
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From north to south
B. From west to east
C. From east to west
D. From south to north
~~

E2A03 (C)
What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
~~

E2A04 (B)
What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
~~

E2A05 (D)
What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B. The location of the ground control station
C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
~~

E2A06 (A)
On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
A. 435 MHz - 438 MHz
B. 144 MHz - 146 MHz
C. 50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
D. 29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
~~

E2A07 (D)
Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
A. FM and CW
B. SSB and SSTV
C. PSK and Packet
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2A08 (B)
Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
~~

E2A09 (A)
What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
D. Which sideband to use
~~

E2A10 (A)
Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
A. Because the satellite is spinning
B. Because of ionospheric absorption
C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D. Because of the Doppler Effect
~~

E2A11 (B)
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A. A linearly polarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array
~~

E2A12 (D)
What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
~~

E2A13 (B)
What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
A. HEO
B. Geostationary
C. Geomagnetic
D. LEO
~~

E2A14 (C) 
What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
A. Radar
B. Bandwidth compressed LORAN
C. APRS
D. Doppler shift of beacon signals
~~


E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques

E2B01 (A)
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
~~

E2B02 (C)
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 1080
~~

E2B03 D) 
How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
B. By scanning each field from bottom to top
C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
~~

E2B04 (B)
What is blanking in a video signal?
A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
~~

E2B05 (C)
Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
~~

E2B06 (A)
What is vestigial sideband modulation?
A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
C. Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
~~

E2B07 (B)
What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
A. Luminance
B. Chroma
C. Hue
D. Spectral Intensity
~~

E2B08 (D)
Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2B09 (D)
What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A. A special IF converter
B. A special front end limiter
C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
D. No other hardware is needed
~~

E2B10 (A)
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
A. 3 KHz
B. 10 KHz
C. 15 KHz
D. 20 KHz
~~

E2B11 (B)
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?
A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
C. To provide vertical synchronization
D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
~~

E2B12 (D)
How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
~~

E2B13 (C)
How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
A. 30 or 60
B. 60 or 100
C. 128 or 256
D. 180 or 360
~~

E2B14 (A)
What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
A. Tone frequency
B. Tone amplitude
C. Sync amplitude
D. Sync frequency
~~

E2B15 (A)
What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
A. Specific tone frequencies
B. Elapsed time
C. Specific tone amplitudes
D. A two-tone signal
~~

E2B16 (D)
Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
A. PAL
B. DRM
C. Scottie
D. NTSC
~~

E2B17 (B)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
A. 600 Hz
B. 3 kHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 6 MHz
~~

E2B18 (D)
On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
A. 14.230 MHz
B. 29.6 MHz
C. 52.525 MHz
D. 1255 MHz
~~

E2B19 (C)
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
~~


E2C Operating methods: contest and DX operating; remote operation techniques; Cabrillo format; QSLing; RF network connected systems

E2C01 (A)
Which of the following is true about contest operating?
A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
~~

E2C02 (A)
Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?
A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one’s own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency before calling that station
D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency before calling that station
~~

E2C03 (A)
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
A. 30 m
B. 6 m
C. 2 m
D. 33 cm
~~

E2C04 (A)
What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?
A. Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
B. Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
C. Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
D. Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
~~

E2C05 (B)
What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
D. To relay calls to and from a DX station
~~

E2C06 (C)
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
~~

E2C07 (A)
What is the Cabrillo format?
A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
C. The most common set of contest rules
D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
~~

E2C08 (B)
Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?
A. Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
B. Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
C. Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
D. Contacts using tactical call signs
~~

E2C09 (C)
What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?
A. A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
B. An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
C. A standard wireless router running custom software
D. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
~~

E2C10 (D)
Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
C. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2C11 (A)
How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
A. Send your full call sign once or twice
B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
C. Send your full call sign and grid square
D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
~~

E2C12 (B)
What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
~~

E2C13 (D)
What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?
A. / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
C. The ARRL section of the remote station
D. No additional indicator is required
~~


E2D Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes and procedures; APRS; EME procedures, meteor scatter procedures

E2D01 (B)
Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
A. WSPR
B. FSK441
C. Hellschreiber
D. APRS
~~

E2D02 (D)
Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?
A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes
C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2D03 (D)
Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
A. FSK441
B. PACTOR III
C. Olivia
D. JT65
~~

E2D04 (C)
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
A. To upload operational software for the transponder
B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
D. To relay messages between satellites
~~

E2D05 (B)
Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
A. Digipeating
B. Store-and-forward
C. Multi-satellite relaying
D. Node hopping
~~

E2D06 (A)
Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
A. Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading
~~

E2D07 (C)
What digital protocol is used by APRS?
A. PACTOR
B. 802.11
C. AX.25
D. AMTOR
~~

E2D08 (A)
What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
A. Unnumbered Information
B. Disconnect
C. Acknowledgement
D. Connect
~~

E2D09 (D)
Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions? 
A. AMTOR
B. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300 baud packet
~~

E2D10 (C)
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2D11 (D)
Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
A. Polar coordinates
B. Time and frequency
C. Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D. Latitude and longitude
~~

E2D12 (A)
How does JT65 improve EME communications?
A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
B. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
C. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E2D13 (A)
What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
A. Multi-tone AFSK
B. PSK
C. RTTY
D. IEEE 802.11
~~

E2D14 (B)
What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?
A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
C. Easily copied by ear if necessary
D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
~~

E2E Operating methods: operating HF digital modes

E2E01 (B)
Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B. FSK
C. Pulse modulation
D. Spread spectrum
~~

E2E02 (A)
What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
A. Forward Error Correction
B. First Error Correction
C. Fatal Error Correction
D. Final Error Correction
~~

E2E03 (C)
How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?
A. By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
B. Stations take turns on alternate days
C. Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
D. It depends on the lunar phase
~~

E2E04 (A)
What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
A. Selective fading has occurred
B. One of the signal filters is saturated
C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
D. The mark and space signal have been inverted
~~

E2E05 (A)
Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
A. Winlink
B. RTTY
C. PSK31
D. MFSK
~~

E2E06 (C)
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
A. 48 baud
B. 110 baud
C. 300 baud
D. 1200 baud
~~

E2E07 (B)
What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
A. 31 Hz
B. 316 Hz
C. 550 Hz
D. 2.16 kHz
~~

E2E08 (B)
Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
A. Hellschreiber
B. PACTOR
C. RTTY
D. AMTOR
~~

E2E09 (D)
Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
A. RTTY
B. PACTOR
C. MT63
D. PSK31
~~

E2E10 (C)
Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
A. MFSK16
B. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300-baud packet
~~

E2E11 (A)
What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
~~

E2E12 (C)
Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?
A. Local
B. Remote
C. Automatic
D. ALE can use any type of control
~~

E2E13 (D)
Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?
A. Your transmit frequency is incorrect
B. The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station
C. Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~


SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]


E3A Electromagnetic waves; Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; aurora propagation

E3A01 (D)
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D. 12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
~~

E3A02 (B)
What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
B. A fluttery irregular fading
C.